If this is true, why then couldn’t Arm prevent Qualcomm from using a license agreement they had with a company Qualcomm bought?
All licensing agreements aren’t the same. It’s possible that the ARM agreement didn’t address transferable rights but that the Intel / AMD agreement did.
All licensing agreements aren’t the same. It’s possible that the ARM agreement didn’t address transferable rights but that the Intel / AMD agreement did.
That’s the point, how can those exist without consent???